This week we had a new couple. They had done some reading on the Sermon and came in with a question, “Is there any difference between the kingdom of heaven and the kingdom of God?” Since a lot of their reading had told them that they were two different things, they had questions (in class and after). Now, this is the neat thing about public teaching: people can ask questions. And questions are good - that’s when you know you are really scratching where it itches!
I expect this to come up some again, because there are folks out there who are teaching that there is a difference between the kingdom of heaven and the kingdom of God. They say the kingdom of heaven is future, while the kingdom of God is now. Why do they teach this? Simply because some verses say of heaven and others of God!
Are they right? No. There is no difference and no distinction to be made between kingdom of heaven and kingdom of God. The best way to demonstrate this is to simply list parallel verses from Matthew, Mark, and Luke. Then you can see that where Matthew uses of heaven, Mark or Luke use of God. Then I will offer a brief explanation of why the two phrases are used.
Matthew 4:17 From that time Jesus began to preach, and to say, Repent: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.
Mark 1:15 And saying, The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand: repent ye, and believe the gospel.
Matthew 5:3 Blessed are the poor in spirit: for theirs is the kingdom of heaven.
Luke 6:20 Blessed be ye poor: for yours is the kingdom of God.
Matthew 11:12 And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence, and the violent take it by force.
13 For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John.
Luke 16:16 The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it.
Matthew 11:11 Verily I say unto you, Among them that are born of women there hath not risen a greater than John the Baptist: notwithstanding he that is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he.
Luke 7:28 For I say unto you, Among those that are born of women there is not a greater prophet than John the Baptist: but he that is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he.
Matthew 13:11 Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given.
Mark 4:11 Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables:
Luke 8:10 Unto you it is given to know the mysteries of the kingdom of God: but to others in parables; that seeing they might not see, and hearing they might not understand.
Matthew 18:3 And said, Verily I say unto you, Except ye be converted, and become as little children, ye shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven.
Mark 10:15 Verily I say unto you, Whosoever shall not receive the kingdom of God as a little child, he shall not enter therein.
Luke 18:17 Verily I say unto you, Whosoever shall not receive the kingdom of God as a little child shall in no wise enter therein.
Matthew 19:23 Then said Jesus unto his disciples, Verily I say unto you, That a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of heaven.
24 And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.
Mark 10:23 And Jesus looked round about, and saith unto his disciples, How hardly shall they that have riches enter into the kingdom of God!
24 And the disciples were astonished at his words. But Jesus answereth again, and saith unto them, Children, how hard is it for them that trust in riches to enter into the kingdom of God!
25 It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.
Luke 18:24 And when Jesus saw that he was very sorrowful, he said, How hardly shall they that have riches enter into the kingdom of God!
25 For it is easier for a camel to go through a needle's eye, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.
Perhaps you noticed that kingdom of heaven only occurs in Matthew. Matthew sometimes uses kingdom of God, but Mark, Luke, and John never use kingdom of heaven. It never occurs outside of Matthew. So, unless Matthew is presenting a different message than the other Gospels, kingdom of heaven and kingdom of God are the same thing. There is only one kingdom. (What you can’t see here is that later on in the epistles and Revelation, it is sometimes referred to as the kingdom of Christ, yet there is only one kingdom.) So, why does Matthew employ the term kingdom of heaven? Because Matthew was written for a Jewish audience. This offers us two possible explanations: (1) Jewish rabbis had used the term kingdom of heaven, and (2) the Jews had developed an aversion to saying God’s personal name (YHWH) and this had even been extended to saying God. As a result, they had developed euphemisms, like of heaven for of God.
There is no difference and no distinction between kingdom of heaven and kingdom of God. Both refer to one and the same kingdom. So the real questions are, What is the kingdom? and, When is the kingdom? I asked and answered them in my introduction to the Sermon on the Mount and, Lord willing, I hope to answer them in future posts as well.
It is common for interpreters of Matthew to say its exclusive use of "kingdom of heaven" was due to Jewish reluctance to use the name of God. The problem with this explanation is that Matthew uses the name of God over fifty times (and uses the phrase kingdom of God four times). Granted that your parallel passages show the two phrases (kingdom of heaven and kingdom of God) are essentially the same, why does Matthew use the kingdom of heaven thirty-two times?
ReplyDeleteI think Matthew does this to contrast the kingdom of heaven with the kingdoms of earth. Jesus' new kingdom of heaven is clearly different from all the kingdoms of earth, beginning with the kingdom of Israel. In Matthew's story, the plot is full of conflict between Jesus and Jewish leaders.
This is a good comment and thank you for reading and taking the time to interact. The only thing I was dogmatic about was that kingdom of heaven and kingdom of God are not only “essentially the same”, they are completely interchangeable, there being no difference or distinction.
ReplyDeleteThe question is not only, Why does Matthew use kingdom of heaven? But also, Why does no one else use it? I believe we have to be cautious since the Bible offers no explanation for this. As I wrote, I am persuaded that the answer lies in the nature and purpose of the gospel according to Matthew – written to Jews. Your final sentence suggests the same.
And I find this most intriguing, Matthew, written for Jews, records the encounter with the high priest as:
Matthew 26:63 But Jesus held his peace. And the high priest answered and said unto him, I adjure thee by the living God, that thou tell us whether thou be the Christ, the Son of God.
While Mark, written for Romans, has
Mark 14:61 But he held his peace, and answered nothing. Again the high priest asked him, and said unto him, Art thou the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?
Mark sounds more Jewish than Matthew! Many thought to pursue!
I like your idea of the contrast of kingdoms, but surely, the other Gospels would offer the same contrasts, ie, the message is not different in the other gospels.
Bottom line, even as you allow, the answer seems to lie in the purpose of Matthew and his originally intended audience, Jewish people.
The ancient tradition is that Matthew was originally written in Aramaic – wouldn’t that be most interesting to have!
While the contrast of kingdoms is found in all the Gospels, the message of Matthew is different in that it concentrates more on this theme of kingdoms and kings; from the start, Matthew's distinctive early chapters introduce this contrast between kingdoms. Thus the genealogy not only lists Jesus' famous Jewish forefathers; the summary in Mt. 1:17 focuses on David and the exile, and finally the Christ. David "the king" begins the 14 generations of kings after him, whose mostly disobedience leads to the punishment of exile (for the kingdom). Then, unlike the earlier fathers and sons of the kingdom of Israel, it is not an earthly father who begets the new (anointed) king, the Christ; it is the (heavenly) Spirit (1:18,20). And the infant Christ is a threat to the ruling fathers in Jerusalem: king Herod, the chief priests, and the scribes (2:1-4).
ReplyDeleteIn Mt. 3, unlike the other gospels, John the Baptist introduces the theme of the kingdom of heaven (God); he says the coming one (the promised king) will baptize with the Spirit; and he contrasts this coming king and kingdom with the kingdom of Israel led by Pharisees and Sadducees (3:7-10). While the language of Jesus' baptism in Matthew is similar to that of Luke, John's message of the kingdom of heaven receives confirmation when the heavens open and the Spirit descends on Jesus (anointing him as king), and a voice from heaven announces him as the beloved Son.
When the Spirit leads Jesus into the desert (4:1f.) to test his sonship (as king), the climax (in Matthew) is the offer of all the kingdoms of the world. Jesus refuses to become another king like the kings of the earth, and begins to announce the kingdom of heaven (in "Galilee of the Gentiles"), and calls disciples to become part of that kingdom. Then Jesus proclaims the kingdom and heals, not only Jews, but also crowds from Gentile areas (4:23-25).
When these crowds gather around him on the mountain, he focuses on his disciples, teaching them (first): blessed are the poor in the Spirit, for theirs is the kingdom of heaven (5:1-3).
Thus this theme will affect not only Jewish readers--especially Jewish Christian readers--but also Gentiles (and Gentile Christians like us).